Enjoy life. This is not a dress rehearsal, Friedrich Nietzsche

A complex function $f(z)$ maps $z = x + iy \in \mathbb{C}$ to another complex number. For example: $f(z) = z^2 = (x + iy)^2 = x^2 - y^2 + 2ixy, f(z) = \frac{1}{z}, f(z) = \sqrt{z^2 + 7}$.
A contour is a continuous, piecewise-smooth curve defined parametrically as: $z(t) = x(t) + iy(t), \quad a \leq t \leq b$.
Definition (Smooth Contour Integral). Let ᵞ be a smooth contour (a continuously differentiable path in the complex plane), $\gamma: [a, b] \to \mathbb{C}$. Let $f: \gamma^* \to \mathbb{C}$ be a continuous complex-valued function defined on the trace $\gamma^*$ of the contour (i.e. along the image of $\gamma$). Then, the contour integral of f along $\gamma$ is defined as $\int_{\gamma} f(z)dz := \int_{a}^{b} f(\gamma(t)) \gamma^{'}(t)dt$.

Deformation of Contours. If two contours $\gamma_1$ and $\gamma_2 $ are homotopic (i.e., one can be continuously deformed into the other without crossing any singularities of f) in a domain where f(z) is analytic, then: $\int_{\gamma_1} f(z)dz = \int_{\gamma_2} f(z)dz.$
Fundamental Theorem of Calculus for Contours. Suppose $\gamma$ is a contour (piecewise smooth path) from a to b, f is defined on a domain D containing $\gamma^*$ (the image of $\gamma$) and admits a primitive (antiderivative) F on D (i.e., $F'(z) = f(z)$), then $\int_{\gamma} f(z)dz = F(\gamma(b)) - F(\gamma(a))$. In particular, if $\gamma$ is a closed contour (i.e., $\gamma(a)=\gamma(b)$), this integral evaluates to zero, $\int_{\gamma} f(z)dz = 0.$
Estimation Theorem or the Triangle Inequality for Integrals. The triangle inequality for integrals in complex analysis states thatfor any continuous complex function $f:[a,b] \to \mathbb{C}$ on a closed real interval [a,b] (f(t) = u(t) + iv(t), t a real parameter), the following holds: $∣\int_a^b f(t)dt| \leq \int_a^b |f(t)|dt$.
Estimation Lemma (ML Inequality) for contour integrals. For any continuous complex function $f:[a,b] \to \mathbb{C}$ on a closed real interval [a,b] (f(z) = u(x, y) + iv(x, y)) with f bounded by some constant M along the entire contour, |f(z)| ≤ M for all $z \in \gamma^*$ (the image/trace of the contour in the complex plane), the following holds: $∣\int_\gamma f(z)dz| \leq M \cdot l(\gamma)$ where l(γ) is the arc length of the contour γ given by $\int_a^b |\gamma^{'}(t)|dt = \int_a^b \sqrt{x'(t)^2 + y'(t)^2}dt \text{ where } \gamma(t) = x(t) + iy(t)$.
In real-variable calculus, a function can be differentiable once, but fail to be differentiable a second time (for example, $f(x) = x|x|$ is differentiable everywhere, $f'(x) = 2|x|$, but $f''(0)$ does not exist). This theorem proves that complex analysis is entirely different: if a complex function is differentiable just once in an open set, it is infinitely smooth forever. This is one of the most striking rigidity phenomena in mathematics: holomorphic functions are, in a sense, “perfect.”
Theorem. Analyticity Implies Infinite Differentiability. Let $f$ be holomorphic (analytic) in an open set $G \subseteq \mathbb{C}$. Then:
Proof.
We know that $f$ is analytic in an open set $G$, which means its first derivative $f'(z)$ exists. We want to prove that its second derivative $f''(a)$ also exists for any arbitrary point $a$ inside $G$. If we can prove this, the logic loops infinitely: if $f'$ has a derivative, then $f'$ is analytic, which means its derivative ($f''$) must also be analytic, and so on.
Fix an arbitrary point $a$ inside our open set $G$. Because $G$ is open, we can draw a perfectly safe, positively oriented circular contour $\gamma$ centered at $a$ with a radius of 2r, ensuring the entire closed disk $\overline{B(a; 2r)}$ lies completely inside $G$.
Let $ \gamma=\partial B(a;2r)$ (positively oriented circle). Because f is analytic in G, Cauchy’s formula for the first derivative holds on $\operatorname{Int}\gamma$: $f'(z) = \frac{1}{2\pi i}\oint_{\gamma} \frac{f(w)}{(w-z)^2}dw$.
We will evaluate it at $a$ and at a slightly perturbed point $a+h$. We choose $h$ strictly such that $|h| < r$, trapping $a+h$ safely inside the contour.
We are going to apply the same reasoning as the previous proof:
$$ \begin{aligned} \frac{f'(a+h)-f'(a)}{h} &\text{ [We apply the Cauchy’s Integral Formula for the First Derivative to the points a + h and a] } \\[2pt] &=\frac{1}{2\pi i h} \left[ \oint_{\gamma} \frac{f(w)}{(w-a-h)^2}dw - \oint_{\gamma} \frac{f(w)}{(w-a)^2}dw \right] \\[2pt] &\text{Linearity Property of Contour Integrals} \\[2pt] &=\frac{1}{2\pi i h} \oint_{\gamma}\left[ \frac{f(w)}{(w-a-h)^2} - \frac{f(w)}{(w-a)^2} \right]dw \\[2pt] &\text{Combine the fractions inside the brackets using the common denominator} \\[2pt] &=\frac{1}{2\pi i h} \oint_{\gamma} \frac{f(w)}{(w-a-h)^2 (w-a)^2} [(w-a)^2 - (w-a-h)^2]dw \\[2pt] &\text{It simplifies to } A^2 - B^2 = (A-B)(A+B) = h[2(w-a)-h] \\[2pt] &=\frac{1}{2\pi i h} \oint_{\gamma} \frac{f(w)}{(w-a-h)^2 (w-a)^2} [(-h)^2 +2wh - 2ah]dw \\[2pt] &\text{The factor h cancels:} \\[2pt] &=\frac{1}{2\pi i} \oint_{\gamma} \frac{f(w)}{(w-a-h)^2 (w-a)^2} [-h +2w - 2a]dw \\[2pt] &=\frac{1}{2\pi i} \oint_{\gamma} \frac{f(w)}{(w-a-h)^2 (w-a)^2} [2w - 2a -2h + h]dw \\[2pt] &=\frac{1}{2\pi i} \oint_{\gamma}\left[ \frac{f(w) \cdot 2(w - a -h)}{(w-a-h)^2 (w-a)^2} + \frac{f(w)h}{(w-a-h)^2 (w-a)^2}\right]dw \\[2pt] &=\frac{1}{2\pi i} \oint_{\gamma} f(w)\left[ \frac{2}{(w-a-h) \cdot (w-a)^2} + \frac{h}{(w-a-h)^2 (w-a)^2}\right]dw \text{ (i) } \end{aligned} $$We strongly suspect the second derivative is going to be exactly what we get if we differentiate the Cauchy formula again $f''(a) = \frac{2}{2\pi i} \oint_{\gamma} \frac{f(w)}{(w-a)^3}dw$. To prove this, we subtract our expected formula from our actual difference quotient (i) and try to show that the “Error” difference shrinks to 0.
$$ \begin{aligned} |Error| &=|\frac{f'(a+h)-f'(a)}{h} -\frac{2}{2\pi i} \oint_\gamma \frac{f(w)}{(w-a)^3}dw| \\[2pt] &=\text{(i)} \\[2pt] &=|\frac{1}{2\pi i} \oint_{\gamma} f(w)\left[ \frac{2}{(w-a-h) \cdot (w-a)^2} + \frac{h}{(w-a-h)^2 (w-a)^2} -\frac{2}{(w-a)^3} \right]dw| \\[2pt] &\text{Combine the fractions inside the brackets using the common denominator} \\[2pt] &=|\frac{1}{2\pi i} \oint_{\gamma} f(w)\left[ \frac{2(w-a) -2(w-a-h)}{(w-a-h) \cdot (w-a)^3} + \frac{h}{(w-a-h)^2 (w-a)^2} \right]dw| \\[2pt] &=|\frac{1}{2\pi i} \oint_{\gamma} f(w)\left[ \frac{2h}{(w-a-h) \cdot (w-a)^3} + \frac{h}{(w-a-h)^2 (w-a)^2} \right]dw| \\[2pt] &\text{Combine the fractions inside the brackets using the common denominator and move h outside the integral} \\[2pt] &=|\frac{h}{2\pi i} \oint_{\gamma} f(w)\left[ \frac{2(w-a-h)+(w-a)}{(w-a-h)^2 \cdot (w-a)^3}\right]dw| \end{aligned} $$Bounding the Error with ML-Estimation.
We must prove that as $h \to 0$, the absolute value of this Error integral is forced to zero. We apply the ML-Inequality ($| \oint f(z) dz | \le \text{Max}(|f|) \cdot \text{Length}$).
Plugging all of our maximum numerators and minimum denominators into the Error formula gives the absolute upper bound:
$0 \le |\frac{f'(a+h)-f'(a)}{h} -\frac{2}{2\pi i} \oint_\gamma \frac{f(w)}{(w-a)^3}dw| \le \frac{2M}{r^3}|h|$
Since $M$ and $r$ are fixed constants, as $h \to 0$, the upper bound $\frac{2M}{r^3}|h|$ approaches or collapses to $0$. $\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{2M}{r^3}|h| = \lim_{h \to 0} 0 = 0 \leadsto[\text{By the Squeeze Theorem, the Error itself must equal 0}]$
$\lim_{h \to 0} |\frac{f'(a+h)-f'(a)}{h} -\frac{2}{2\pi i} \oint_\gamma \frac{f(w)}{(w-a)^3}dw| = 0 \leadsto \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f'(a+h)-f'(a)}{h} -\frac{2}{2\pi i} \oint_\gamma \frac{f(w)}{(w-a)^3}dw = 0$.
Since $\frac{2}{2\pi i} \oint_\gamma \frac{f(w)}{(w-a)^3}dw$ is constant related to h, the second derivative exists, and its value is $f''(a) = \frac{2}{2\pi i}\oint_\gamma \frac{f(w)}{(w-a)^3}dw$
Since $f''(a)$ exists for an arbitrary point $a \in G$, $f'(z)$ is differentiable on $G$, meaning $f'$ is analytic in $G$. (This proves part (i)).
We normally use the following notation: $f''(z) = \frac{2!}{2\pi i}\oint_\gamma \frac{f(w)}{(w-z)^3}dw, \forall z \in \mathcal{Int}(\gamma)$
(ii) We proved that if f is analytic in G then f’ is analytic in G by (i). Since f’ is analytic in G, we can replace f by f’ in the previous statement, so f’’ is analytic in G, and we can continue this process indefinitely (infinite induction), so f is infinitely differentiable in G.
Furthermore, the same Cauchy integral argument at each stage yields the general formula: $\boxed{f^{(n)}(a) = \frac{n!}{2\pi i}\oint_\gamma \frac{f(w)}{(w-a)^{n+1}}\,dw}$ for any $n \geq 0$ and any circle $\gamma$ centered at $a$ with $\overline{B(a; R)} \subset G$. $\quad\square$
From the formula $f^{(n)}(a) = \frac{n!}{2\pi i}\oint_\gamma \frac{f(w)}{(w-a)^{n+1}}\,dw$ with $\gamma$ the circle of radius $R$, applying the ML inequality:
$$|f^{(n)}(a)| \leq \frac{n!}{2\pi}\cdot\frac{M}{R^{n+1}}\cdot 2\pi R = \frac{n!\,M}{R^n},$$where $M = \max_{|w-a|=R}|f(w)|$. This is Cauchy’s inequality, which bounds derivatives of holomorphic functions and leads directly to Liouville’s theorem.
The ML-inequality states: $\left|\oint_\gamma g(w)\,dw\right| \leq M \cdot L$ where $M = \max_{w \in \gamma}|g(w)|$ and $L = \text{length}(\gamma)$. $\left|f^{(n)}(a)\right|\leq \frac{n!}{2\pi} \cdot \underbrace{\frac{M}{R^{n+1}}}_{\text{bound on } |g(w)|} \cdot \underbrace{2\pi R}_{\text{length}}$
Liouville’s theorem. A bounded entire function is constant.
Suppose $|f(z)| \leq M$ for all $z \in \mathbb{C}$. Apply Cauchy’s inequality with $n=1$ at any point $a$: $|f'(a)| \leq \frac{M}{R}$.
This holds for any $R > 0$. Let $R \to \infty$: $|f'(a)| \leq \lim_{R\to\infty}\frac{M}{R} = 0$
So $f'(a) = 0$ for all $a \in \mathbb{C}$, hence $f$ is constant. $\square$
Since all derivatives exist, $f$ has a Taylor series at every point $a \in G$: $\boxed{f(z) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!}(z-a)^n,}$ and this series converges to $f(z)$ on the largest open disk centered at $a$ contained in $G$. In complex analysis, “holomorphic” and “analytic” (representable by a convergent power series) are equivalent — a fact that fails spectacularly in real analysis.
$$\frac{1}{w-z} = \frac{1}{w-a}\cdot\frac{1}{1-\frac{z-a}{w-a}} = \frac{1}{w-a}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\left(\frac{z-a}{w-a}\right)^n$$This converges uniformly for $|z-a| < |w-a| = R$. Substitute into: $f(z) = \frac{1}{2\pi i}\oint_{C_R}\frac{f(w)}{w-z}\,dw = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\left(\frac{1}{2\pi i}\oint_{C_R}\frac{f(w)}{(w-a)^{n+1}}\,dw\right)(z-a)^n$
The coefficient is exactly $\frac{f^{(n)}(a)}{n!}$ by the generalized Cauchy Integral Formula.
The real and imaginary parts $u = \operatorname{Re}(f)$, $v = \operatorname{Im}(f)$ are not just $C^\infty$ — they are real-analytic (expressible as convergent real power series in $x$ and $y$). They are also harmonic: $\nabla^2 u = \nabla^2 v = 0$.
$f(z) = e^z$ is entire. Its derivatives are $f^{(n)}(z) = e^z$ for all $n$ — an infinite sequence of holomorphic functions, all equal.
$f(z) = \frac{1}{1-z}$ is holomorphic on $\mathbb{C}\setminus\{1\}$. Its derivatives are $f^{(n)}(z) = \frac{n!}{(1-z)^{n+1}}$, all holomorphic on the same domain.
$f'(z)=\frac{1}{(1-z)^2}. f''(z)=\frac{2}{(1-z)^3}. f^{(n)}(z)=\frac{n!}{(1-z)^{n+1}}$
Real counterexample. The function $f(x) = e^{-1/x^2}$ (with $f(0) = 0$) is $C^\infty$ on $\mathbb{R}$ and all its derivatives at $x = 0$ are zero: $f^{(n)}(0) = 0$ for all $n$. However, $f$ is not identically zero near $0$, so its Taylor series (which is identically $0$) does not converge to $f$. This function is $C^\infty$ but not real-analytic. No such pathology exists in complex analysis: a holomorphic function always equals its Taylor series.
A sequence of holomorphic functions $\{ f_n \}$ on a domain $G \subset \mathbb{C}$ such that $f_n \to f$ converges uniformly on compact subsets of G (i.e., $\forall K \subset G$, K compact and every $\varepsilon \gt 0, \exist N, \text{ s.t. } n \ge N \implies |f_n(z) -f(z)| \lt \varepsilon, \forall z \in K$), then $f$ is holomorphic (by Morera’s theorem). By the theorem above, $f$ is then automatically $C^\infty$. Moreover, $f_n^{(k)} \to f^{(k)}$ uniformly on compact subsets for every $k$ — uniform convergence of holomorphic functions propagates to all derivatives.
Proof.
Morera’s Theorem: If $f$ is continuous on a domain $G$ and $\oint_\gamma f(z)\, dz = 0$ for every closed triangle $\gamma \subset G$, then $f$ is holomorphic on $G$.
Holomorphic functions are infinitely differentiable and even real‑analytic. The moment we know f is holomorphic, the entire Cauchy‑theoretic machinery becomes available.
For any closed curve $\gamma$ around z: $\boxed{f^{(k)}(z)=\frac{k!}{2\pi i}\oint _{\gamma }\frac{f(w)}{(w-z)^{k+1}}\, dw.}$ This important result gives:
Furthermore, uniform convergence propagates to derivatives. If $f_n\rightarrow f$ uniformly on compact sets and each $f_n$ is holomorphic, then $f_n^{(k)}\rightarrow f^{(k)}$ uniformly on compact sets for every $k\geq 0$. 🌟 Holomorphicity is stable under uniform convergence on compact sets.